Quantopian's community platform is shutting down. Please read this post for more information and download your code.
Back to Community
Why do you divide the Sharpe Ratio by the standard deviation of excess returns and not just standard deviation of returns alone?

I am watching the lecture on "Instability of Estimates" and my question pertains to the formula used for the Sharpe Ratio. The formula was written with the denominator as std(R_a - R_b) .

I have never seen this notation where you divide by the standard deviation of the excess returns of the asset over the risk-free rate. I have only ever seen the denominator being the standard deviation of the asset alone, not the excess over the risk-free rate. Can someone explain why this is to me? This makes a big difference in the result you get from the formula. I have searched a lot on the internet but only find the formula to be what I mentioned above, dividing by the standard deviation of the asset alone.

Is this notation specific to algorithmic trading formulas?