Suppose I open two new funds, Long Fund and Short Fund, and receive a $1m investment into each.
The Long Fund has a strategy of buying as much of AAPL as it can every quarter. To do this (although counter-intuitive), the fund will sell all of its shares in AAPL, then use all of its cash to purchase as much AAPL as it can. The Short Fund follows the exact same strategy but in reverse:
Long Fund sells (if it is currently held) every quarter, and then purchases AAPL.
Short Fund buys (if it is currently short) every quarter, and then shorts AAPL.
Now, assume the short fund has a broker willing to lend shares to the fund but if the fund had enough margin to cover 100% of the stock's price when the position was opened. The broker will also make no margin calls. Further, assume there are no commission fees, and the funds both Buy and Sell securities at Mid.
Will the two funds exhibit perfect negative correlation and have the same return profile? I'm trying to compute just that but I cannot find the settings to make buy and sell prices equal to mid.
Many thanks,
Aaron