Stock prices are normally split adjusted, so that (e.g.) a 2:1 split (as described in the Q help doc) means a stock that was trading at $100 is back adjusted so that its price is $50. Volume is also adjusted.
From the point of view of the default commission model, this doesn't seem to make any sense at all and is not historically correct. For instance, $10,000 worth of a $100 stock would cost 0.03 * 100 = $3, but after the split, historical backtests will then have the cost at 0.03 * 200 = $6. The effect is more pronounced when the split ratio is e.g. 7:1. Unless I'm missing something?
From the point of view of psychology, the effect of a stock reaching an all time high to $100 (a nice round number) may be an important "event" that can be modelled, however this effect is destroyed following back-adjusted splits. (Splits themselves are interesting events, since companies doing well tend to do it so the price isn't so high for just one unit)
Simple tests like (close_price > 20) don't make sense any more, and its worse the further back in time you go, especially for stocks which had more than few splits over their history. Intel and Walmart have split at least 8 times each I think, although most of that was prior to 2002 (the start of Q history).
Minimum volume tests also don't work out, particularly with reverse-splits. Unless I don't understand exactly what Q does with volume when splits occur.
Now I realise the pain which must be associated with having to write an algorithm without split-adjusted prices, but I'm wondering what the pay-off might be considering the potential better accuracy of backtests.
Has anyone ever coded with non-adjusted prices?
EDIT: in the attached Notebook, I was looking for a 10x change in volume, but I'm not seeing it...