If one assumes that the risk-free rate is 0 (as I believe Q does in their calculation of Sharpe), then would it be completely wrong to use the built in factors, like this to calculate Sharpe?
from quantopian.pipeline.factors import AnnualizedVolatility, Returns
simple_sharpe = Returns(window_length = 126) / AnnualizedVolatility(window_length = 126)
Regarding risk-free rate = 0, would the overnight USD Libor rate (currently about 1.7% annualized I believe) be the correct one (for daily rebalancing algos), and also, should it be adjusted for inflation, in which case 0 probably wouldn't be too far off?
Hopefully someone more enlightened can answer these questions.